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Question

As a reply to question 524 raised on 30-08-2016, you had mentioned that you are analysing the possibility of providing further advice on this template, is there any progress on this?
Lets assume an example where we have only one claim of 100. We expect to pay in the following year and we end up indemnifying the claim with 50 in the following year.
Then our opening best estimate would be 100, our closing 0 (case indemnified, no more provision).I guess Cell R0070 would be -100 (text suggest inflow - outflow, hence negative sign), is our understanding correct?  
Then what would be cell R0080? Description seems to suggest that it relates to strict realisation of cash flow, does this mean 50? But then the balance wouldnt add up...
Can you please provide further clarification and if possible a more detailed example than the one above?

European Insurance and Occupational Pensions Authority · Accepted Answer

In the example a claim provision of 100 expected to be paid in year n, paid 50 during year n. This row should show -100. The payment of 50 would be reported only in technical flows.
This assumes the claim was closed. The impact would be positive in the excess of assets over liabilities as the payment was lower than expected.

1379

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